"Anonymous. Show me where on a Weave following a Whisk it is written that on step one there is an 1/8 of a turn."

Answer of August 27:

"Look at the diagram and you will clearly see it. In Ballroom Dancing the text description does not break down the turn per step for this figure; in other volumes such as the ISTD book it is broken down and that same 1/8 turn seen in the diagram in Ballroom Dancing is explicitly stated in the text."

August 26: "To quote the ISTD book, it says under amounts of turn "1/8 between preceding step and 1""

August 26: "There is in fact 1/8 turn into step one for the man when the weave from promenade follows a whisk. That's the change you will see in your footprint diagram from DC at the end of the whisk to the first step of the weave being placed aligned squarely to the center."

Anonymous. I don't have the ISTD book. Or Guy Howard's. You might copy exactly what it says from the book that you have.
I have been told by a competing highly placed International that there is no turn if CBMP is being applied.I was told not to curve it even slightly. It is straight. It is in CBMP intil the end of the step.
If there was a turn on step one in Promenade it wouldn't be in CBMP would it.

"Anonymous. I don't have the ISTD book. Or Guy Howard's."

You really should get them, as it would do a lot to clear up some of your misreadings of Moore's book.

"You might copy exactly what it says from the book that you have."

Already done for you - TWICE. See the messages of earlier today and yesterday.

"I have been told by a competing highly placed International that there is no turn if CBMP is being applied.I was told not to curve it even slightly. It is straight. It is in CBMP intil the end of the step."

This is true when CBMP is used on its own.

And it is true that CBM is not used to CREATE a CBMP placement of the moving foot.

However there are numerous situations where CBM and CBMP occur on the same step. Failing to understand the existence of these has been a persistent problem of yours for a couple years now, and we've been over it many times in the past. To take the most basic example, a natural turn commenced outside partner will have CBM and also step into CBMP.

Perhaps the key to understanding these is that the CBMP is set up by the conditions before the start of the step. Regardless if you then choose to dance a figure that has CBM or one that doesn't, it has already been pre-deteremined that the first step will land in CBMP either way.

The case where the CBMP coincides with not just CBM, but actual turn on the first step is a bit more unusual, but the weave from promenade is a good example. In this case there is turn on step one, but the man will not have CBM since the turn is in the opposite direction from the sort that could be called CBM. His partner will of course have CBM.

You should pay carefully attention though to the fact that neither CBM (which is body rotation) nor "turn" (which is foot rotation) imply "curve". Curve can only occur when the direction of travel changes, and the diagrams will clearly show that in these cases it does not change until later in the figure, despite the turn on step 1.

"If there was a turn on step one in Promenade it wouldn't be in CBMP would it."

No, it still would be CBMP, because ALL PROMENADE STEPS OF THE INSIDE LEG ARE INTO CBMP. Regardless if there is or isn't turn. I'd refer you again to the quoted passage of the ISTD book, or the digram in Moore, which both specify 1/8 turn on the first step, and that the first step goes into CBMP.

Will you ever learn?

Anonymous. I had a look at the IDSF technique book. The one on which this person I know passed her teaching exams.
You know as well as I do it doesn't say there is any turn on step one on the first step into a Weave from a Promenade Position, which in this case is following a Whisk.. I wondered why you wouldn't print the text. I suggest you read it again and write exactly what is written.

The turn into a Weave from PP preceded by whisk is 1/8 between the preceding step (3 of whisk) and 1, body turns less. 1 is placed in CBMP (like any other PP step), and there is no CBM on 1, but on 2.

As a footnote to the recent bickering over whether there is turn for man in the whisk, of course where a weave from PP is to follow, it is the man who turns the whisk out into PP.

Telemark. At least you did read correctly. When you spotted that the turn of the feet occurs before step one is taken. It would not be possible to do a Reverse Weave after a Whisk unless the feet are in position. As I said there is no turn on a step that is in CBMP which step one is. Step two has the CBM along with step five. Four is in CBMP and is straight.
Amounts of Turn. 3/8ths of a turn to the left between 2 and 4 and a 1/4 between 5 and 6.
Do you observe that 1 and 4 according to these instructions have no turn and are in CBMP.

Hi, Polished,

/* As I said there is no turn on a step that is in CBMP */

Please buy a technique book.

"Anonymous. I had a look at the IDSF technique book."

No you didn't, because the IDSF does not publish a technique book.

Assuming you mean the ISTD techinque book:

"You know as well as I do it doesn't say there is any turn on step one on the first step into a Weave from a Promenade "

Nope, unlike you I know what that book actually says, which is, as I previously quoted for you on August 26 and again on August 28, "1/8 between preceding step and 1"

"I wondered why you wouldn't print the text. I suggest you read it again and write exactly what is written."

I had done so two times before you requested that, and referred you to the fact. I have now done so a third time.

When will you ever learn?

Anonymous. It would have helped if you had put which book and what page. If it is from a DVD then who's tape. Otherwise anything you write is hearsay. If it is just your opinion then say so. Does anybody else agree with that. If not we are going to have all sorts of idiotic advice. At least tell us where it came from . Then we can check for ourselves.
You are now saying that there is no turn in any step on which CBMP is being applied . Is that correct. In other words on step one following a Whisk into a Reverse Weave there is no turn on step one which is in CBMP. Which is what I said in the first place and haven't changed since.
Heres one. Does the person going forward. if it is a heel lead. lower the foot to the floor before the person going backwards lowers the whole of the foot to the floor.
Go to Learn the dances on this site on the International style of Ballroom Dancing and check for yourself. You will see that the lowering of the foot to the floor is at a different time.
Before attacking paragraph three answer paragraphs 1 and 2.
So there you have it What, Where and How. Without that... the words written are just hearsay.

"Anonymous. It would have helped if you had put which book and what page."

As I stated on August 26, 28, and 30, this is right out of the ISTD technique book description of the weave from promenade. For the FIFTH time, it says under amounts of turn:

"1/8 between preceding step and 1"

So my question is are you going to keep claiming ignorance, or are you going to admit that you were wrong?


"You are now saying that there is no turn in any step on which CBMP is being applied . Is that correct. In other words on step one following a Whisk into a Reverse Weave there is no turn on step one which is in CBMP."

No, I am NOT saying that, because it is NOT true.

As the quote from the ISTD book posted here now five times, and the chart in ballroom dancing referenced numerous times indicate, there IS IN FACT TURN INTO STEP ONE IF THE WEAVE FROM PROMENADE, WHICH IS ALSO PLACED IN CBMP.

How long are you going to continue denying that the ink on the page says what it does?